If with v. 17 Paul turns to an entirely opposite class of errorists, how is it to be explained that he does not indicate this change? Why look only at “the belly” and ignore the rest? When Paul first came to Philippi he had every reason even at that time to warn against Judaizers, for such errorists had brought about the convention in Jerusalem (Acts 15), and this convention itself had sent its resolution to all the Gentile churches. When the congregation at Philippi was founded, no libertinists